|
Hello,
I don't
even know how to begin because my infertility process has been so exhausting. I
suppose I have diminished ovarian reserve. My last FSH check was 8.5. My
AMH is 1. My stimulation cycles response seem to change--one time will be a
nice response and the subsequent ones won't be. I started my first IVF this year and I fear repeating the same pattern
as last year. Last year, my first IUI on 75 follistim/femara produced 4 mature
eggs. I conceived, hcg was high, but ultimately a miscarriage due to trisomy 3.
Did a complete RPL work up (I had a chemical pregnancy unmedicated 6 mos
earlier). Nothing was abnormal, even karotyping.
I had
two more IUIs after that, producing 2 eggs, then only 1 egg. No success. I
battled recurrent simple follicular cysts for about six months (would bounce
from one ovary to next, two cyst aspirations and they would still come back)
and finally had a cystectomy and laparoscopy in early February 2013. He found
very mild endometriosis and treated it. I had started birth control pills in
early January, on for 5 weeks, and then carried on with an antagonist protocol
later in February with 150 follistim/75menopur. My day 4 E2 was over 700,
thought I had another cyst, but instead had several follicles, dropped
follistim to 75, then E2 dropped to 500, then up to 100 follistim and
eventually my growth balanced out. Ultimately, I had 14 follices, 12 mature, 9
eggs retrieved, 6 fertilized, 4 day 3 embryos, then 2 highest grade
blastocysts, 1 morula. Transferred the two blasts. Positive beta, 175 14 days
after transfer. But my 48 hour beta dropped to 77. So I'm having another
chemical pregnancy/miscarriage. This is exactly a year from my last
miscarriage.
I am
terrified that in continuing IVF I will repeat this same pattern--that the next
IVFs will not work. I just don't know
what to do. I don't want to be 32 and have bad eggs when I know I don't
have a translocation. I feel like I do respond to lower doses of medications,
which should be indicative of decent reserve, but I don't know why I would keep
having such problems likely due to embryo abnormalities. I suppose my uterus
may have not been ready after the surgery and it wasn't the embryo but I took
the good stuff-PIO, vivelle, dexamethasone, prednisone.
Anyway,
can these protocols be causing me an increased risk for aneuploid embryos? What
could be changed? Any comforting words that I won't face the same fate with
more IVFs that I did with the repeat IUIs? With it happening the same way all
over again, I am believing I'll never have a baby. Last year was so hard, this
IVF was hard. I’ve had to miss so much work, surgeries, U/S, procedures, etc. And I love my husband so much. I hate that I put him through
this.
Thank you, L. from Oklahoma
Answer:
Hello L.
from the U.S. (Oklahoma),
First let me clarify and
emphasize to you that the IVF cycle worked, and you certainly have a good
chance that it will continue to work in the future.
Your doctor probably did not explain that IVF only gives you the
"chance" to get pregnant. It,
in fact, cannot MAKE you pregnant because the last three steps of the reproductive
process are still beyond our technology to make happen. These steps have to happen naturally (that
part is still in God's hands). So the
fact that you got pregnant on your first IVF cycle is significant because it
shows that you can get pregnant! It is
unfortunate, however, that it ended as a miscarriage.
In terms
of going through all of your previous pregnancies and this one, that would
involve a more comprehensive analysis and explanation, that is beyond this
venue. I can do that by private
consultation only.
Second, I think you need to get
the terms "decreased ovarian reserve" and "never" out of
your vocabulary. You DON'T have decreased ovarian
reserve. Keep in mind that in IUI
cycles, we only want up to three mature sized follicles so that you don't get
triplets, quadruplets, etc. So, your
responses were appropriate. With your
IVF cycle you were on a very low dose protocol and the yield was appropriate. .
. not too strong and not too light. You
certainly could have been stimulated a little stronger, but it looks like your
ovaries are very sensitive to the fertility medications so some care needs to
be taken, as your doctor did.
Finally, there is no technology
that can predict or evaluate for internal embryo quality.
We can evaluate chromosomes so one option you certainly could consider
with IVF is to have preimplantation genetic screening (PGS). If you decide to do PGS, I would recommend a
D#5 biopsy to reduce harm to the embryo, but your embryos would need to be
frozen and transferred at a different cycle.
But that would allow you to evaluate the genetics of the embryo prior to
transfer. Your doctor would also need to
stimulate a little stronger to have more embryos to work with and test since
surely some will return abnormal. This
will then allow you to transfer normal embryos.
All
clinics, doctors and the protocols they use differ and that is what influences
the pregnancy rates which vary from clinic to clinic. There are other treatment protocol options;
for example, I use low dose aspirin and low dose heparin in my recurrent pregnancy
loss patients. It has been well
documented to help. You might want to
discuss that with your doctor.
I want you to not lose hope.
You are young, your ovaries are still responsive and you've been
pregnant, so now the goal is just to get a perfect embryo so that you can have
the perfect baby. Statistically, your
chances are very very high, so you will eventually be successful. You just need to hang in there and get the
best treatment that you can. Then once
you have your baby, let me know so that I can celebrate your success as
well. You are on the road to
success. The only way you will surely
fail, is if you deviate from than road.
Like Law school, this is a hard road, and it may not be fair, but in the
end, it will be the most wonderful experience you've ever had in your
life! Greater than falling in love. It was for me, and I thank God for his
blessing that gave me my beautiful soon to be 16 year old IVF daughter. Keep the faith in your path and in
yourself. Sorry for the long answer...good
luck!
Executive Medical Director The Fertility and Gynecology Center Monterey Bay IVF Program www.montereybayivf.com |
Dr. Edward Ramirez is the medical director of Monterey Bay IVF, a women's fertility & gynecology center located in Monterey, California. He hopes to provide those who read his infertility blog with insights into the latest advances in women's health & infertility issues. He respectfully shares his knowledge as a specialist with women and men from all over the world. Visit his center at www.montereybayivf.com
Showing posts with label diminished ovarian reserve. Show all posts
Showing posts with label diminished ovarian reserve. Show all posts
Monday, April 8, 2013
32 Yr. Old Losing Hope After One IUI Miscarriage and One IVF Chemical Pregnancy: I Say Don't Give Up!!!
Saturday, May 12, 2012
Fourth IVF Cycle Ends In A Chemical Pregnancy: What Can Be Done?
Question:
Hi Dr. Ramirez,
I have been on a rollercoaster ride for the past week and I am hoping that you can offer me your opinion.
I received a positive beta after my 4th IVF on Monday (11dp3dt). It was 14.3 and my RE said that it was quite low. I held out hope as I am convinced that I tend to implant a little later than others. In a previous cycle I had a negative beta 12dp3dt and found out that I was pregnant a couple of weeks later. I tested 3 days later and my beta was up to 52.8. I was so excited and felt so much better about things. I am scheduled to go back on Sunday morning for another beta.
I am currently taking Crinone 2xday. For the past week, I have had dark brown Crinone gunk(sorry for TMI). Last night and this morning there was some red blood on the applicator tip. At 1st I thought it was just irritation but for the past couple of hours, when I wipe there has been more red blood. I am also getting some minor cramping.
I am freaking out and I am so worried that things are moving in the wrong direction. I called my clinic and they said that they cant know anything until Sundays beta. They said it could be start of a miscarriage given the low beta #'s or it could be irritation from the Crinone or even pregnancy spotting.
I was hoping that you could offer some advice as I remember in the past that you prescribe Crinone to your patients.
Is RED spotting normal? How much spotting is normal? Was I foolish to be hopeful after my #'s doubled? Do you think its likely that this will end in miscarriage?
Any insight would be greatly appreciated. I dont know if i can hold out until Sunday's beta.
Thank you,
D. from Boston, Mass.
Answer:
Hello D. from the U.S.(Massachusetts),
The advice that your doctor gave you is completely correct. It could be from the Crinone, and I have seen an increased incidence of spotting in my patients using Crinone), it could be implantation spotting or pregnancy spotting or it could be indicating an abnormal pregnancy. There is no way to know which of these is the correct diagnosis. In general, I reassure my patients not to worry about spotting. I only worry if the bleeding is bright red flow like a period with accompanying cramping. The only way to determine the fate of this pregnancy at this point is to continue to follow the bHCG's every other day. This trend will then give you a better idea of how the pregnancy is doing. AS long as the bHCG is rising, then you can be reassured. If it plateaus or drops, then that is not a good sign.
Follow-Up Question #1:
Dr. Ramirez,
Thank you for getting back to me. Unfortunately, my beta level dropped on Saturday so it looks like I will be having another chemical pregnancy. I am devastated of course. I was hoping that you might be able to provide me with some insight as to an explanation as to why this keeps happening.
A little history:
Me: 31 years old- normal FSH but AMH is .8
Husband: Very low morphology (less than 1%)
This was our 4th IVF cycle and 3rd chemical pregnancy. I have had tons of testing... RPL work-up, HSG, genetic testing, uterine biopsy and all came back normal.
I am a low responder and in previous cycles have had poor egg quality. I just switched REs and had a better response with an Estrogen Priming Antagonist protocol. He used a low dose HCG with Gonal F. Quality and ICSI fertilization rate was much better so I was hopeful that this was it.
My RE said that it was likely a chromosomal issue with the embryo and probably because of poor egg quality and we just need to keep trying and hopefully will get that “one” good egg. I don’t know if I am comfortable with that answer. We only have 2 insurance tries left and I want to make sure we are exploring all options before proceeding again. What would you recommend for your patients at this point? Do you think that it is worth doing a Sperm DNA fragmentation test?
What could be the reason for all of these chemical pregnancies?
Any insight is greatly appreciated.
Follow-Up Answer #1 :
Hello Again,
The exact reason cannot be known, of course but the most common reason for chemical pregnancies are a genetic abnormality in the embryo. With poor morphology in the semen analysis and your young age, definitely the genetic weakness could be from the sperm. I don't recommend the sperm DNA fragmentation test because it only gives the indication for the batch of sperm that it tests and not the sperm as a whole. In addition, the treatment recommendation is to use ICSI, which I presume you are doing already. So you won't gain anything from that test. If we suspect the sperm, other than ICSI you have the choice of either using donor sperm the next time or maybe try using a supplement for three months before doing IVF again. The supplements that your husband can try, which might help with sperm quality, are either Proxeed or Fertility Blend (vitamins) and CoQ10 600 mg per day. He will have to wait three months because sperm are on a 90 day cycle #the sperm made today won't be expressed for 90 days.
The only other options I could give are what I would do with my patients who have recurrent miscarriages (which is what you have even if it is a chemical pregnancy). Studies have shown the benefit of these meds and it is standard of practice to use these with recurrent miscarriages.
I would add: aspirin 81 mg per day, Medrol 15 mg per day until transfer then decrease to 8 mg per day, Heparin 2000 units twice per day and CoQ10 600 mg per day, all starting with the start of the cycle (CD#2). The Aspirin and Heparin are withheld from the day of HCG trigger until the day after the retrieval. The only other option you might want to consider is genetic testing of the embryos prior to transfer, called preimplantation genetic screening (PGS). That way you will know if the embryos are normal genetically or not. The downside of using PGS is I have observed and some studies have shown a drop in pregnancy rates after this. Some of my colleagues say that if it is done by a very experienced embryologist who does lots of these procedures, the pregnancy rate does not drop.
You'll have to discuss these options with your doc. I'm afraid there are no exact answers to your dilemma. But, studies on patients with recurrent pregnancies have shown that eventually these patients are successful. So, hang in there, even if your insurance coverage expires.
Follow-Up Question #2:
Thank you so much for your thorough response. I really appreciate it.
I am only 31 years old but I do have a low AMH (only .8) so along with that and the fact that I am a low responder, my RE suspects that I may have a diminished ovarian reserve. So, unfortunately, both my husband and I seem to have issues.
Do you think that the low AMH and dimished ovarian reserve contribute to the repeat miscarriages? Or do you think it is likely a sperm issue?
Is there any way to tell who is main contributor to this issue? We are not ready to talk about donors at this point and will continue to try with our own eggs/sperm for now but in the event that we need to explore other options, it would be helpful to know if we would be more likely to succeed using donor egg or donor sperm.
My RE has given us the impression that it is more a egg issue but hasn't given us any explanation of why.
Any help with this would be hugely appreciated.
Follow Up Answer #2:
Hello Agian,
There is no way to know what the exact cause of the recurrent miscarriages is. It could be egg or sperm derived since the genetics of the embryo come from both. Considering that you are ONLY 31 years old, I would suspect that it is NOT an egg issue but there is no way to be sure.
It is definitely not related to AMH or low ovarian reserve. The AMH is a measure of follicle availability and low ovarian reserve is a description of ovarian response to stimulation.
Good Luck,
Dr. Edward J. Ramirez, M.D., FACOG
Executive Medical Director
The Fertility and Gynecology Center
Monterey Bay IVF Program
http://www.montereybayivf.com/
Hi Dr. Ramirez,
I have been on a rollercoaster ride for the past week and I am hoping that you can offer me your opinion.
I received a positive beta after my 4th IVF on Monday (11dp3dt). It was 14.3 and my RE said that it was quite low. I held out hope as I am convinced that I tend to implant a little later than others. In a previous cycle I had a negative beta 12dp3dt and found out that I was pregnant a couple of weeks later. I tested 3 days later and my beta was up to 52.8. I was so excited and felt so much better about things. I am scheduled to go back on Sunday morning for another beta.
I am currently taking Crinone 2xday. For the past week, I have had dark brown Crinone gunk(sorry for TMI). Last night and this morning there was some red blood on the applicator tip. At 1st I thought it was just irritation but for the past couple of hours, when I wipe there has been more red blood. I am also getting some minor cramping.
I am freaking out and I am so worried that things are moving in the wrong direction. I called my clinic and they said that they cant know anything until Sundays beta. They said it could be start of a miscarriage given the low beta #'s or it could be irritation from the Crinone or even pregnancy spotting.
I was hoping that you could offer some advice as I remember in the past that you prescribe Crinone to your patients.
Is RED spotting normal? How much spotting is normal? Was I foolish to be hopeful after my #'s doubled? Do you think its likely that this will end in miscarriage?
Any insight would be greatly appreciated. I dont know if i can hold out until Sunday's beta.
Thank you,
D. from Boston, Mass.
Answer:
Hello D. from the U.S.(Massachusetts),
The advice that your doctor gave you is completely correct. It could be from the Crinone, and I have seen an increased incidence of spotting in my patients using Crinone), it could be implantation spotting or pregnancy spotting or it could be indicating an abnormal pregnancy. There is no way to know which of these is the correct diagnosis. In general, I reassure my patients not to worry about spotting. I only worry if the bleeding is bright red flow like a period with accompanying cramping. The only way to determine the fate of this pregnancy at this point is to continue to follow the bHCG's every other day. This trend will then give you a better idea of how the pregnancy is doing. AS long as the bHCG is rising, then you can be reassured. If it plateaus or drops, then that is not a good sign.
Follow-Up Question #1:
Dr. Ramirez,
Thank you for getting back to me. Unfortunately, my beta level dropped on Saturday so it looks like I will be having another chemical pregnancy. I am devastated of course. I was hoping that you might be able to provide me with some insight as to an explanation as to why this keeps happening.
A little history:
Me: 31 years old- normal FSH but AMH is .8
Husband: Very low morphology (less than 1%)
This was our 4th IVF cycle and 3rd chemical pregnancy. I have had tons of testing... RPL work-up, HSG, genetic testing, uterine biopsy and all came back normal.
I am a low responder and in previous cycles have had poor egg quality. I just switched REs and had a better response with an Estrogen Priming Antagonist protocol. He used a low dose HCG with Gonal F. Quality and ICSI fertilization rate was much better so I was hopeful that this was it.
My RE said that it was likely a chromosomal issue with the embryo and probably because of poor egg quality and we just need to keep trying and hopefully will get that “one” good egg. I don’t know if I am comfortable with that answer. We only have 2 insurance tries left and I want to make sure we are exploring all options before proceeding again. What would you recommend for your patients at this point? Do you think that it is worth doing a Sperm DNA fragmentation test?
What could be the reason for all of these chemical pregnancies?
Any insight is greatly appreciated.
Follow-Up Answer #1 :
Hello Again,
The exact reason cannot be known, of course but the most common reason for chemical pregnancies are a genetic abnormality in the embryo. With poor morphology in the semen analysis and your young age, definitely the genetic weakness could be from the sperm. I don't recommend the sperm DNA fragmentation test because it only gives the indication for the batch of sperm that it tests and not the sperm as a whole. In addition, the treatment recommendation is to use ICSI, which I presume you are doing already. So you won't gain anything from that test. If we suspect the sperm, other than ICSI you have the choice of either using donor sperm the next time or maybe try using a supplement for three months before doing IVF again. The supplements that your husband can try, which might help with sperm quality, are either Proxeed or Fertility Blend (vitamins) and CoQ10 600 mg per day. He will have to wait three months because sperm are on a 90 day cycle #the sperm made today won't be expressed for 90 days.
The only other options I could give are what I would do with my patients who have recurrent miscarriages (which is what you have even if it is a chemical pregnancy). Studies have shown the benefit of these meds and it is standard of practice to use these with recurrent miscarriages.
I would add: aspirin 81 mg per day, Medrol 15 mg per day until transfer then decrease to 8 mg per day, Heparin 2000 units twice per day and CoQ10 600 mg per day, all starting with the start of the cycle (CD#2). The Aspirin and Heparin are withheld from the day of HCG trigger until the day after the retrieval. The only other option you might want to consider is genetic testing of the embryos prior to transfer, called preimplantation genetic screening (PGS). That way you will know if the embryos are normal genetically or not. The downside of using PGS is I have observed and some studies have shown a drop in pregnancy rates after this. Some of my colleagues say that if it is done by a very experienced embryologist who does lots of these procedures, the pregnancy rate does not drop.
You'll have to discuss these options with your doc. I'm afraid there are no exact answers to your dilemma. But, studies on patients with recurrent pregnancies have shown that eventually these patients are successful. So, hang in there, even if your insurance coverage expires.
Follow-Up Question #2:
Thank you so much for your thorough response. I really appreciate it.
I am only 31 years old but I do have a low AMH (only .8) so along with that and the fact that I am a low responder, my RE suspects that I may have a diminished ovarian reserve. So, unfortunately, both my husband and I seem to have issues.
Do you think that the low AMH and dimished ovarian reserve contribute to the repeat miscarriages? Or do you think it is likely a sperm issue?
Is there any way to tell who is main contributor to this issue? We are not ready to talk about donors at this point and will continue to try with our own eggs/sperm for now but in the event that we need to explore other options, it would be helpful to know if we would be more likely to succeed using donor egg or donor sperm.
My RE has given us the impression that it is more a egg issue but hasn't given us any explanation of why.
Any help with this would be hugely appreciated.
Follow Up Answer #2:
Hello Agian,
There is no way to know what the exact cause of the recurrent miscarriages is. It could be egg or sperm derived since the genetics of the embryo come from both. Considering that you are ONLY 31 years old, I would suspect that it is NOT an egg issue but there is no way to be sure.
It is definitely not related to AMH or low ovarian reserve. The AMH is a measure of follicle availability and low ovarian reserve is a description of ovarian response to stimulation.
Good Luck,
Dr. Edward J. Ramirez, M.D., FACOG
Executive Medical Director
The Fertility and Gynecology Center
Monterey Bay IVF Program
http://www.montereybayivf.com/
Friday, April 27, 2012
You Can Do IVF With A Low AMH !
Question:
Hello Dr. Ramirez,
I am 36 and have been unable to conceive for 3 years. The diagnosis we have been given is diminished ovarian reserve. I have tried 3 IUIs (intra uterine insemination) with clomid. Each time I ovulated only 1 egg (I already ovulate on my own). I decided to move on to IVF. I went to a new clinic because they have very high success rates (30% higher than my current clinic). Over the last year, my antral follicle count has only been between 6 - 8. FSH has been between 7.6 to 9.5 (my very first cycle a year ago it was 12.5, but that was tested on day 4, so I'm hoping that made a bit of a difference). Estrogen is always low on day 3, so my FSH is not artificially suppressed. The new RE insisted on an AMH test (my previous clinic offered it, but I declined as it is not covered by insurance and wouldn't have changed my treatment plan - only possibly caused more worry - my previous clinic was okay with my decision).The AMH test came back with very bad results (2.4 pmol/L - I understand there are 2 units for measuring this and for pmol/L this is very low). The new RE says there is no point doing IVF with that AMH result. He said my chances of success are less than 2%. He said you usually get half the number of eggs of your AMH (so I would be lucky to get 1). He would only do IUI with injectables if I wanted to, but recommends I move straight to donor eggs based on the AMH test.
I am wondering if the new clinic has such great results because they exclude patients from IVF that may not respond so well OR if the doctor really does know what he is talking about and I would just be throwing money away. Obviously, I would prefer to have a chance at a biological child and wanted to move to IVF ASAP. In your opinion, should I visit another clinic that would allow me to do IVF (understanding with low AFC and low AMH, my results may not be positive) or do you think this doctor is right and it would be a waste of time to try my own eggs and move to donor eggs immediately. I know donor eggs would have a better success rate, but there is not a time limit on this option (as there is on my own eggs) so that could be a future option. Thank you very much for your time, L. from Toronto, Canada
Answer:
Dear L. in Toronto
It always angers me when Doctors draw these type of conclusions. A recent study that I read showed that despite a low AMH number or an elevated FSH, there is still a pregnancy rate of about 20%. What that basically shows, as I have always argued, is that it only takes ONE good egg to be successful. When a woman tries on her own naturally each month, she only has one egg to work with. I often get letters from patients whose doctor has cancelled their cycle because they only have 1-3 follicles. But, what if the perfect egg was in one of those follicles? FSH levels and AMH are only indirect measures of ovarian function. They are NOT measures of egg quality or your chances of pregnancy. Please see more on AMH here: Understanding Infertility: Age Factors.
Naturally, part of the statistical chances with IVF occurs from being able to get many eggs to work with i.e. more eggs increases the statistical chances. Imagine that you have a dice and want the number 6. If you only have one dice, you have a 1 of 6 chance. Two dices double your chances, three dices etc. So with IVF, since we can't predict if the egg that is retrieved will be the perfect egg, and because we don't want to have to do this over and over again due to cost, we want to have lots of eggs. But that doesn't necessarily mean it won't work if you have fewer than is ideal. It might take more than one try (statistically). But, as I ALWAYS tell my patients, who are usually older than you, it only takes one good egg to be successful.You might want to find a clinic that is more willing to work with you instead of make decisions for you. I can see that you are good at analyzing the situation and I am confident that you will make the right decision.
Good luck and don't give up!
Dr. Edward J. Ramirez, M.D., FACOG
Executive Medical Director
The Fertility and Gynecology Center
Monterey Bay IVF Program
www.montereybayivf.com
Monterey, California, U.S.A
Follow-Up To This Post:
Please scroll down to November 6, 2013 to see this writer's good news and how by persevering she conceived with a low AMH :)!
"I am the one that originally submitted this question to you and I want to thank you for being positive as even with the low AMH we did end up getting pregnant and are currently 4 months away from meeting our 'miracle' baby."
Hello Dr. Ramirez,
I am 36 and have been unable to conceive for 3 years. The diagnosis we have been given is diminished ovarian reserve. I have tried 3 IUIs (intra uterine insemination) with clomid. Each time I ovulated only 1 egg (I already ovulate on my own). I decided to move on to IVF. I went to a new clinic because they have very high success rates (30% higher than my current clinic). Over the last year, my antral follicle count has only been between 6 - 8. FSH has been between 7.6 to 9.5 (my very first cycle a year ago it was 12.5, but that was tested on day 4, so I'm hoping that made a bit of a difference). Estrogen is always low on day 3, so my FSH is not artificially suppressed. The new RE insisted on an AMH test (my previous clinic offered it, but I declined as it is not covered by insurance and wouldn't have changed my treatment plan - only possibly caused more worry - my previous clinic was okay with my decision).The AMH test came back with very bad results (2.4 pmol/L - I understand there are 2 units for measuring this and for pmol/L this is very low). The new RE says there is no point doing IVF with that AMH result. He said my chances of success are less than 2%. He said you usually get half the number of eggs of your AMH (so I would be lucky to get 1). He would only do IUI with injectables if I wanted to, but recommends I move straight to donor eggs based on the AMH test.
I am wondering if the new clinic has such great results because they exclude patients from IVF that may not respond so well OR if the doctor really does know what he is talking about and I would just be throwing money away. Obviously, I would prefer to have a chance at a biological child and wanted to move to IVF ASAP. In your opinion, should I visit another clinic that would allow me to do IVF (understanding with low AFC and low AMH, my results may not be positive) or do you think this doctor is right and it would be a waste of time to try my own eggs and move to donor eggs immediately. I know donor eggs would have a better success rate, but there is not a time limit on this option (as there is on my own eggs) so that could be a future option. Thank you very much for your time, L. from Toronto, Canada
Answer:
Dear L. in Toronto
It always angers me when Doctors draw these type of conclusions. A recent study that I read showed that despite a low AMH number or an elevated FSH, there is still a pregnancy rate of about 20%. What that basically shows, as I have always argued, is that it only takes ONE good egg to be successful. When a woman tries on her own naturally each month, she only has one egg to work with. I often get letters from patients whose doctor has cancelled their cycle because they only have 1-3 follicles. But, what if the perfect egg was in one of those follicles? FSH levels and AMH are only indirect measures of ovarian function. They are NOT measures of egg quality or your chances of pregnancy. Please see more on AMH here: Understanding Infertility: Age Factors.
Naturally, part of the statistical chances with IVF occurs from being able to get many eggs to work with i.e. more eggs increases the statistical chances. Imagine that you have a dice and want the number 6. If you only have one dice, you have a 1 of 6 chance. Two dices double your chances, three dices etc. So with IVF, since we can't predict if the egg that is retrieved will be the perfect egg, and because we don't want to have to do this over and over again due to cost, we want to have lots of eggs. But that doesn't necessarily mean it won't work if you have fewer than is ideal. It might take more than one try (statistically). But, as I ALWAYS tell my patients, who are usually older than you, it only takes one good egg to be successful.You might want to find a clinic that is more willing to work with you instead of make decisions for you. I can see that you are good at analyzing the situation and I am confident that you will make the right decision.
Good luck and don't give up!
Dr. Edward J. Ramirez, M.D., FACOG
Executive Medical Director
The Fertility and Gynecology Center
Monterey Bay IVF Program
www.montereybayivf.com
Monterey, California, U.S.A
Follow-Up To This Post:
Please scroll down to November 6, 2013 to see this writer's good news and how by persevering she conceived with a low AMH :)!
"I am the one that originally submitted this question to you and I want to thank you for being positive as even with the low AMH we did end up getting pregnant and are currently 4 months away from meeting our 'miracle' baby."
Labels:
AMH,
diminished ovarian reserve,
DOR,
egg quality,
FSH,
High FSH,
IVF
Saturday, March 26, 2011
Diminished Ovarian Reserve, First Time IVF: Low Estradiol (E2) Levels During IVF Stim Cycle

Question:
K. from NYC:
So, I took your advice and immediately wasted no time, and moved directly to IVF (in vitro fertilization). Dx: DOR (diminished ovarian reserve) @ age 35, one previous live birth 2 years ago, natural conception, (baby came from left ovary) after 12 months of trying @ 32 years old.
My recent HSG showed tubes open, but right tube slightly dilated. RE said not to worry about it at this time, as it was only slightly dictated and still spilling. Always have right ovary pain w/ ovulation, never left. I had b/w done on day 3 of my cycle before my ivf. FSH 10.4, e2 45, AFC 10, AMH 0.87. I started bcp's (birth control pills) for 21 days prior to stims. My AFC (antral follicle count) dropped to 6! ugg. For the last year i monitored my cycles very closely. 26 day cycles when i had ovulation pain on my right ovary, and 30 days when I had no pain from my left ovary. In my humble opinion I don't think my right ovary functions like it should.
Last month was my left ovary's turn, the month I had an AFC of 10 (6 antrals in left and 4 in right). This month it is my right ovary's turn and I only have 3 AFC in each #small too!~bcp's?. I also ovulate on cd 18 with my right ovary and cd 16 with my left, not sure if that is relevant.
My stims are NOT going well. I am on 300 follistim and 150 Menopur, I took no meds between ending BCP's and starting Follistim/Menopur 3 days later. On my the morning after my day 3 stims my e2 was a whopping 32.5! My clinic said to continue on my meds, no changes. Come back in 3 days for b/w and u/s. Per the nurse, "some people take a little time to get going". My questions are: why didn't they increase my meds? Did they expect a low e2 because I am DOR? Could this be over suppression with bcp's? Since I normally ovulate later in my cycle and not earlier like most DOR, could this just be my norm~my body taking it's time to develop the eggs? My cd3 e2 have always been between 30-45, I thought that was good for stimming? Could this be due to decrease blood flow to ovaries? I was told to stop my fish oil/baby asa/vitamin e before stims b/c they are blood thinners, but i thought these could help during stims?
This is my first IVF. Do you think they are just riding this out to see how I stimulate for next time? I am waiting for RE to call me back, but I want all the opinions I can get.
ANSWER:
Hello K. from New York.,
If I am understanding you correctly, your CD#3 E2 with this cycle was 32.5. That would be your baseline E2 for this cycle and does not necessarily indicate that you are not stimulating. The first estradiol level to check for stimulate would be four to five days after starting the stimulation (Follistim/Menopur) and you would be monitored approximately every three days after that to determine your progress. It is at the second E2 that you doctor might adjust your protocol and increase it if their protocol is not already at the highest. Some clinics use 450IU of medication (300IU Follistim/150IU Menopur) as their highest protocol. I go a little higher with 450IU of Follistim and 150IU Menopur. Because of your decreased ovarian reserve, it is expected that your ovaries will probably not stimulate strongly, but you will have to wait and see how things go. The goal is to have a peak E2 of around 2000 (when the follicles are ready to trigger).
I use low dose aspirin in all my IVF cycles, but not the Vit E or Fish oil. There is no problem with that.
It is certainly difficult to know how a person is going to respond in the first IVF cycle. There is a little guess work in determining how much medication to use with each patient. Your doctor has probably chosen this protocol as a good place to start and may make adjustments henceforth. You'll have to be patient and wait and see how things turn out. You may want to ask your doctor if you are on their highest protocol.
Follow-Up Question:
I never asked what my baseline e2 was, but the 32.5 was after 3 nights of stimulation. I had an u/s today (after 6 nights of meds) and NO CHANGE to baseline u/s, 6 unmeasurable follies. Waiting on new e2, but suspect it is going to be the same. I feel like I was completely suppressed. My cycle prior to this my CD3 u/s showed 10 juicy follicles, 6 in left and 4 in right. I know that this is a low count but I can't help to think that if i started my stims on that cycle I would have produced some eggs.
I am sure I will be cancelled on Monday. I hope my ovarian function returns. When they call w/ my e2's from this AM and if they don't increase my dose, I will ask why. I was told not to take any blood thinners (and listed: ASA, VitE, Foil due to risk of bleeding w/ ER.) When I suggested not using BCP's next time if needed they said ok, switch to Lupron, but wouldn't that suppress me too? Why can't we just start meds on CD3?? Thank you so much for your time!
Follow-Up Answer:
Hello Again,
Thanks for the clarification. The E2 on the third day of stimulation is called the CD#5 E2 level. It is the first check to see how you are stimulating, and you are correct, it shows that you are not stimulating at all. I don't do an ultrasound on that day because it is too early and the follicle sizes will still be small. The next check is usually done on CD#9 and an ultrasound is done with that visit. If you were in my clinic and the E2 were only 32 on CD#5, I would have increased your Follistim to 450IU. That is my maximum protocol (450IU Follistim/150IU Menopur). Then we would see how it goes from there. However, you have to understand that every clinic and every doctor is trained differently and uses different protocols. No protocol is better than any other. Your doctor's max protocol may only be 300/150. So you'll have to ask.
In terms of your decreased response, I don't think that it is due to the birth control pill, but there are some studies that show a decreased response if not enough days are given after the last pill and the start of stimulation. Basically, not enough time is given for it to leave your system.
In DOR (diminished ovarian reserve) patients I will usually want 6-7 days off the pill before starting stimulation. Again, you are correct that Lupron would also suppress the ovaries (this is known as the long protocol), and in fact, it will suppress the ovaries stronger than the birth control pill. I don't think that is any better.
The non-pill cycle that you are referring to is following the IVF cycle after a natural cycle. There are some clinics that do that but scheduling and making sure everything is suppressed appropriately, stimulated appropriately and timed appropriately is harder after a natural cycle. Some older studies also showed a better response if the ovary has been suppressed with the birth control pill for at least three weeks in the preceeding cycle. I always precede a cycle with birth control pills. That allows me to control the ovarian response. Decreased ovarian reserve or DOR basically means that your ovaries will not respond well to stimulation. That is to be expected. But, you should have had at least one follicle developing and that may mean that you are not being stimulated hard enough.
Good luck,
Edward J. Ramirez, M.D., FACOG
Executive Medical Director
The Fertility and Gynecology Center
Monterey Bay IVF Program
Monterey, California, U.S.A.
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